10/27 Why is the monarch of Monaco called a prince instead of a king?
\_ Because it was a principality of France. in 1512, the king of
france recognized their independence, but the name of the office
stuck.
\_ Actually, in French and English it's 'Prince'; Germanic
languages are a bit more precise, as they differentiate between
'Prinz', or someone with some sort of claim to a royal throne,
and 'Fuerst', which is kind of a generic sovereign ruler dude.
So both Liechtenstein and Monaco have the latter, there's just
a linguistic difference. -John
\_ I wonder if this is true of Italian also. Machiavelli's
title certainly refers to the 'Fuerst' meaning of 'Prince.'
-- ilyas
\_ ...and Principe in Spanish. And for 100 points, what
do those all have in common, that German does not (besides
edible food)? -John
\_ The English have edible food?
\_ Yes, it's called curry.
\_ Are you looking for the latin root? --scotsman
\_ If you mean Latin, that's not too hard.
\_ English is a Germanic language, not Latin.
\_ English takes bits from German, Latin, Greek, and
French (which is itself Latin-derived).
\_ Oh, I see. I was just looking at
http://www.m-w.com/mw/table/indoeuro.htm
\_ Ding. Why do you think they bothered with all
that empire shit, and then gave it up once they
had half of Asia and Afria immigrating?
\_ The East India Trading Company was just an
elaborate ruse to get better food for England?
It all makes so much sense now....
\_ Well, tea anyway. |
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