11/9    Let's say you have f(n)=2^n. Then as a function of n the output is
        exponential (easy). In that case, why is it that as a function of
        f(n) the output is linear?
        \_ I don't know what "output" means, but I'll try.  Let m =
           f(n), then m = 2^n, hence f(n) = 2^n = m, and hence f(n) =
           m.  So f(n) is a linear function of m, therefore f(n) is a
           linear function of f(n).  I guess that means the "output"
           is linear.
           \_ so this is universally true no matter what f(n) is right?
              \_ uh, so f(n) is always linear to itself?  well, duh.
        \_ Is this from some Math class in Cal?  Which one?